The RBC model (Chapter 14) showed that technology shocks in a frictionless economy can generate realistic business cycle statistics. But it has a critical blind spot: monetary policy does nothing. In the RBC world, money is neutral, and the Fed is irrelevant. This contradicts overwhelming evidence that monetary policy affects real output, at least in the short run.
New Keynesian (NK) economics solves this by adding nominal rigidities (sticky prices or wages) to the RBC chassis. The result is a model where monetary policy has real effects, the central bank faces meaningful tradeoffs, and the Taylor rule becomes the central equation of modern central banking.
This chapter's New Keynesian framework is a hub in the book's Walkthrough network. Each juncture appears after the section where the relevant model is developed; in the linear read they stay collapsed.
In perfect competition, firms are price takers: there is no price to "stick." For price rigidity to matter, firms must have price-setting power. The standard NK setup uses Dixit-Stiglitz monopolistic competition:
Each firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve: $y_j = (p_j / P)^{-\varepsilon} Y$.
The optimal reset price is a weighted average of current and expected future marginal costs:
Each period only a random slice of firms gets to change its price, so the price level as a whole moves slowly. A firm that resets today is stuck with that price for a while, so it sets it with an eye on where costs are heading, not just where they are. That lag between what the economy needs and what prices actually do is the whole reason monetary policy bites: change the money supply and, for a stretch, real spending moves before prices catch up.
where $\pi_t$ is inflation, $x_t$ is the output gap, and $\kappa = \frac{(1-\theta)(1-\beta\theta)}{\theta} \cdot \frac{\sigma + \varphi}{1 + \varphi\varepsilon}$. Current inflation depends on expected future inflation (forward-looking!) and current marginal cost (proportional to output gap). With cost-push shocks:
Firms set prices looking forward, so today's inflation tracks two things: what firms expect inflation to be tomorrow, and how hot the economy is running right now. The old Phillips curve treated inflation as a trade-off you could ride; this one says the trade-off only exists in the gap between expectations and reality. Anchor expectations and a hot economy still pushes prices up, but the leverage runs through what people believe is coming, not just where output sits today.
Step 1: Under Calvo pricing with parameter $\theta$, fraction $(1-\theta)$ of firms reset prices each period. The aggregate price level evolves as: $P_t = [\theta P_{t-1}^{1-\varepsilon} + (1-\theta)(p_t^*)^{1-\varepsilon}]^{1/(1-\varepsilon)}$.
Step 2: Log-linearize: $\hat{p}_t = \theta\hat{p}_{t-1} + (1-\theta)\hat{p}_t^*$. Since $\pi_t = \hat{p}_t - \hat{p}_{t-1}$: $\pi_t = (1-\theta)(\hat{p}_t^* - \hat{p}_{t-1})$.
Step 3: The optimal reset price is a discounted sum of expected future marginal costs: $\hat{p}_t^* = (1-\beta\theta)\sum_{k=0}^\infty(\beta\theta)^k E_t[\widehat{mc}_{t+k} + \hat{p}_{t+k}]$.
Step 4: Recursive substitution yields: $\pi_t = \beta E_t\pi_{t+1} + \frac{(1-\theta)(1-\beta\theta)}{\theta}\widehat{mc}_t$.
Step 5: Real marginal cost is proportional to the output gap: $\widehat{mc}_t = \frac{\sigma+\varphi}{1+\varphi\varepsilon}x_t$. Defining $\kappa = \frac{(1-\theta)(1-\beta\theta)}{\theta}\cdot\frac{\sigma+\varphi}{1+\varphi\varepsilon}$ gives the NKPC: $\pi_t = \beta E_t\pi_{t+1} + \kappa x_t$.
Parameters: $\beta = 0.99$, $\kappa = 0.3$, $\sigma = 1$, $\phi_\pi = 1.5$, $\phi_x = 0.5$, $r^* = 2\%$, $r^n = 2\%$, $u = 0$.
Step 1: From NKPC (one-period shock, $E_t\pi_{t+1} = 0$): $\pi = \kappa x + u = 0.3x$.
Step 2: From IS (one-period, $E_tx_{t+1} = 0$): $x = -(1/\sigma)(i - r^n) = -(i - 2)$.
Step 3: Taylor rule: $i = 2 + 1.5\pi + 0.5x$.
Step 4: Substitute Taylor into IS: $x = -(2 + 1.5\pi + 0.5x - 2) = -1.5\pi - 0.5x$, so \$1.5x = -1.5\pi$, giving $x = -\pi$.
Step 5: Substitute into NKPC: $\pi = 0.3(-\pi) = -0.3\pi$, so \$1.3\pi = 0$ and $\pi = 0$, $x = 0$, $i = 2\%$.
Result: With no shocks, the equilibrium is $\pi = 0$, $x = 0$, $i = r^* = 2\%$. Divine coincidence holds.
The central bank minimizes $L = E_0\sum\beta^t[x_t^2 + \alpha_\pi\pi_t^2]$ with $\alpha_\pi = 0.5$, $\kappa = 0.3$.
Step 1: Under discretion, the central bank minimizes the one-period loss taking expectations as given: $\min_{x_t}\{x_t^2 + \alpha_\pi(\kappa x_t + u_t)^2\}$.
Step 2: FOC: $1x_t + 2\alpha_\pi\kappa(\kappa x_t + u_t) = 0$. Solving: $x_t = -\frac{\alpha_\pi\kappa}{1 + \alpha_\pi\kappa^2}u_t = -\frac{0.5 \times 0.3}{1 + 0.5 \times 0.09}u_t = -\frac{0.15}{1.045}u_t = -0.144u_t$.
Step 3: Inflation: $\pi_t = \kappa x_t + u_t = -0.3(0.144)u_t + u_t = 0.957u_t$.
Step 4: The implied Taylor rule achieves this by responding aggressively to inflation. Higher $\alpha_\pi$ (inflation-averse) implies a larger $\phi_\pi$, reducing inflation at the cost of greater output gap volatility.
The output gap depends on the expected future gap minus the difference between the real interest rate and the natural rate. When the central bank sets the real rate below the natural rate, it stimulates demand.
People smooth their spending over time, so what they demand today depends on the whole expected path of real interest rates, not just today's rate. A central bank that promises cheap money for years stimulates now, because households and firms pull future spending forward. The benchmark is the natural rate, the rate that would prevail if prices were free to adjust: set the real rate below it and demand heats up, above it and demand cools.
The Taylor rule did not arrive fully formed. It is the operational distillate of a datable lineage: the inflation-targeting and DSGE consensus that crystallized between 1980 and 2008, downstream of the natural-rate counter-revolution it absorbed.
The framework's apparent payoff was the Great Moderation: across the rich economies, output-growth volatility fell sharply from the early 1980s. The cross-country GDP record over the 1971–2008 window is where that decline is visible.
Three equations, three unknowns ($\pi_t$, $x_t$, $i_t$):
| Equation | Name | Role |
|---|---|---|
| $\pi_t = \beta E_t\pi_{t+1} + \kappa x_t + u_t$ | NKPC | Inflation determination |
| $x_t = E_tx_{t+1} - \frac{1}{\sigma}(i_t - E_t\pi_{t+1} - r_t^n)$ | Dynamic IS | Demand |
| $i_t = r^* + \phi_\pi\pi_t + \phi_x x_t$ | Taylor rule | Monetary policy |
The whole model comes down to three rules working at once: how prices drift (firms set them forward-looking), how spending responds to interest rates (cheaper money means more demand), and how the central bank reacts (raise rates when inflation climbs). Plug them together and they pin down inflation and the output gap jointly. Nothing is set in isolation; a cost shock, a demand swing, or a more aggressive central bank all ripple through the same three-way feedback loop. The interactive below lets you push one lever and watch the equilibrium settle.
Adjust shocks and the Taylor rule aggressiveness to see how the NK equilibrium shifts. The left panel shows the NKPC and the monetary policy reaction (combining IS + Taylor rule) in $(\pi, x)$ space. The right panel shows the implied interest rate.
Figure 15.2. The 3-equation NK model. Left panel: NKPC (blue, upward slope) and monetary policy reaction function (red, downward slope) in ($x$, $\pi$) space. Right panel: Taylor rule interest rate. Adjust sliders to see how shocks and policy aggressiveness shift the equilibrium. Hover for values.
The Taylor principle is the single most important operational rule in modern central banking. The pre-Volcker Fed (1960s–70s) had $\phi_\pi \approx 0.83 < 1$, producing the Great Inflation. The post-Volcker Fed had $\phi_\pi \approx 2.15 > 1$, producing the Great Moderation.
Slide $\phi_\pi$ across the critical threshold of 1. Below 1, the economy is indeterminate: a rise in inflation lowers the real rate, fueling more inflation. Above 1, the real rate rises with inflation, stabilizing the economy.
Figure 15.3. Taylor principle visualization. The blue line is the Taylor rule ($i$ vs $\pi$). The gray dashed line is $i = \pi$ (constant real rate). When the Taylor rule is steeper than the 45-degree line ($\phi_\pi > 1$), real rates rise with inflation (stable). When flatter ($\phi_\pi < 1$), real rates fall with inflation (unstable).
The 3-equation model is not a free-standing invention. It is the formalization of a school — Mankiw and the New Keynesians, Woodford's microfounded monetary theory, Galí's textbook synthesis — whose intellectual lineage the history-of-thought volume traces in full.
The framework's apparent vindication is an episode, not a theorem: the 1984–2007 Great Moderation, when the rich economies ran low, stable inflation under exactly this kind of rule. The economic-history volume tells that episode in full.
Section 15.6 established divine coincidence: without cost-push shocks ($u_t = 0$), the central bank can achieve $\pi_t = 0$ and $x_t = 0$ simultaneously. There is no tradeoff. But when $u_t \neq 0$ (an oil price spike, a supply disruption, a wage-push shock), divine coincidence breaks. Now the central bank faces a genuine policy tradeoff: it can reduce inflation only by accepting a larger output gap, or close the output gap only by tolerating higher inflation. How should it choose?
The answer depends on the central bank's loss function, its formal objective. The standard specification penalizes both output gap deviations and inflation deviations quadratically:
The parameter $\alpha_\pi > 0$ is the relative weight on inflation stabilization. A central bank with high $\alpha_\pi$ (inflation-averse, like the Bundesbank or ECB) prioritizes price stability; one with low $\alpha_\pi$ (employment-focused) tolerates more inflation to stabilize output. The Federal Reserve's "dual mandate" corresponds to moderate $\alpha_\pi$.
Under discretion, the central bank re-optimizes each period, taking private-sector expectations as given. It minimizes the one-period loss $x_t^2 + \alpha_\pi \pi_t^2$ subject to the NKPC constraint $\pi_t = \beta E_t\pi_{t+1} + \kappa x_t + u_t$, treating $E_t\pi_{t+1}$ as fixed. The first-order condition yields:
$$x_t = -\frac{\alpha_\pi \kappa}{1 + \alpha_\pi \kappa^2} u_t, \qquad \pi_t = \frac{1}{1 + \alpha_\pi \kappa^2} u_t$$
When a cost shock hits and the bank cannot escape the trade-off, it splits the pain: it lets inflation rise a little and lets output fall a little, rather than absorbing all of one. How it splits depends entirely on how much it hates inflation. A hard-money bank lets output take more of the hit to keep prices steady; an employment-focused one tolerates more inflation to protect jobs.
The central bank partially accommodates the cost-push shock. With higher $\alpha_\pi$, it tolerates a larger output gap to keep inflation closer to zero. With lower $\alpha_\pi$, it accepts more inflation to protect output. This is the policy frontier under discretion: the set of achievable combinations of output gap variance and inflation variance as $\alpha_\pi$ varies.
Under commitment, the central bank binds itself to a state-contingent plan at time zero. Because it can promise future deflation after a cost-push shock, it manipulates the $\beta E_t\pi_{t+1}$ term in the NKPC. A credible promise of lower future inflation reduces current inflation directly, because private agents expect deflation and moderate their price-setting today. The optimal targeting rule under commitment (Clarida, Gali, and Gertler, 1999; Woodford, 2003) is:
$$\pi_t - \pi_{t-1} = -\frac{\kappa}{\alpha_\pi} x_t$$
A bank that can credibly promise future restraint gets cheaper disinflation today. The reason is the expectations channel: if people believe prices will be lower down the road, they moderate their own price-setting now, so inflation falls before the central bank has to squeeze output hard. The catch is credibility, the promise only works if everyone trusts the bank will keep it even when keeping it hurts. This is the Volcker lesson in one line.
This is history-dependent: inflation depends on its own past, not just the current shock. Under discretion, each period is a fresh optimization: the central bank cannot credibly commit to future deflation, so the expectations channel is unavailable. Under commitment, it can, and the result is a strictly better outcome: for any $\alpha_\pi$, the commitment frontier lies inside (southwest of) the discretion frontier in (var($x$), var($\pi$)) space.
The gain from commitment depends on shock persistence. When cost-push shocks are iid ($\rho_u = 0$), the future is irrelevant and commitment offers little advantage. When shocks are persistent ($\rho_u \to 1$), the expectations channel is powerful: the central bank's ability to promise future deflation dramatically reduces the current cost of disinflation. This is the Volcker lesson formalized: credible commitment to fighting inflation reduces the sacrifice ratio.
Adjust the inflation weight $\alpha_\pi$ to trace the policy frontier, and the shock persistence $\rho_u$ to see how persistence amplifies the commitment advantage. The commitment frontier (blue) always lies southwest of the discretion frontier (red): commitment achieves lower variance of both inflation and the output gap.
Figure 15.6. Policy frontier under discretion (red dashed) vs commitment (blue solid) in output gap variance–inflation variance space. Each curve shows the achievable (var($x$), var($\pi$)) pairs as $\alpha_\pi$ varies. Dots mark the current operating point. The commitment frontier lies strictly inside: commitment achieves lower variance of both variables. Increase $\rho_u$ to see the commitment advantage grow.
Setup: $\alpha_\pi = 0.5$, $\kappa = 0.3$, $\beta = 0.99$. A persistent cost-push shock $u_t = 1\%$, $\rho_u = 0.8$.
Step 1 (Discretion): Each period, $x_t = -\frac{0.5 \times 0.3}{1 + 0.5 \times 0.09} u_t = -0.144 u_t$. With $u_0 = 1$: $x_0 = -0.144\%$, $\pi_0 = 0.957\%$. Since $u_t = 0.8^t$: $x_t = -0.144 \times 0.8^t$, $\pi_t = 0.957 \times 0.8^t$.
Step 2 (Discretion loss): $\mathcal{L}_D = \sum_{t=0}^{\infty} 0.99^t [(0.144 \times 0.8^t)^2 + 0.5 (0.957 \times 0.8^t)^2] = [0.0207 + 0.458] \times \frac{1}{1 - 0.99 \times 0.64} = 0.479 \times 2.78 = 1.33$.
Step 3 (Commitment): Under commitment, the central bank promises future deflation. The optimal plan reduces $\pi_0$ below \$1.957\%$ because $E_0 \pi_1 < 0$ feeds back through the NKPC to lower current inflation. The history-dependent rule produces $\pi_0 \approx 0.71\%$, $x_0 \approx -0.21\%$: more output sacrifice on impact, but less inflation and faster convergence.
Step 4 (Comparison): $\mathcal{L}_C \approx 0.92$. Gain from commitment: $(1.33 - 0.92)/1.33 = 31\%$. The commitment advantage is substantial with persistent shocks because the expectations channel has multiple future periods to work through.
The optimal policy analysis assumes the central bank can set any interest rate. In practice, the nominal interest rate cannot go below zero: $i_t \geq 0$. When the natural rate falls below zero, even optimal policy is powerless: the zero lower bound binds, and conventional monetary policy is exhausted. Section 15.8 analyzes this constraint.
The nominal interest rate cannot go below zero: $i_t \geq 0$. When the natural rate $r_t^n$ falls below zero during a severe recession, the Taylor rule calls for a negative nominal rate, which is infeasible. Conventional monetary policy is powerless.
Slide the natural rate from positive to negative. When $r^n$ goes negative, the Taylor rule calls for a negative nominal rate, but the ZLB binds at zero. The gap between the required rate and zero represents monetary policy impotence.
Figure 15.4. ZLB trap. Left panel: Taylor rule prescribed rate (blue) vs actual rate (red, floored at 0). The shaded red region is the "monetary policy gap": the amount of stimulus the central bank cannot deliver. Right panel: resulting output gap. Drag $r^n$ below zero to see the trap engage.
Ron Paul spent decades grilling Fed chairs on C-SPAN, and the clips became YouTube gold for the "End the Fed" movement. Peter Schiff turned "the Fed is debasing the currency" into a media empire. During 2020–2023, when the Fed's balance sheet ballooned from \$4 trillion to \$9 trillion and inflation hit 9%, "they're printing money" went from fringe libertarian talking point to dinner-table consensus. The New Keynesian model you just learned says the Fed controls the economy through interest rates, expectations, and the Taylor rule. The "End the Fed" crowd says the Fed is the problem. Who's right?
AdvancedThe zero lower bound was the canonical model's first real failure. The model has no financial sector, so the 2008 crisis — a credit panic that pushed the natural rate below zero and pinned policy at the floor — is exactly the event it could not generate. The economic-history volume tells that crisis as it happened.
| Shock | RBC Response | NK Response |
|---|---|---|
| Technology + | Output up, hours ambiguous | Output up more slowly, hours may fall |
| Monetary expansion | No effect (neutral) | Output up, inflation up, rate down |
| Cost-push | Maps to tech shock | Inflation up, output down (stagflation) |
Compare impulse responses side by side. Toggle between a technology shock and a monetary policy shock to see what nominal rigidities add.
Figure 15.5. Side-by-side impulse responses. Left column: RBC (flexible prices). Right column: NK (sticky prices). Top row: output. Bottom row: inflation. Toggle between shock types. The monetary shock has no effect in RBC but real effects in NK. This is what price stickiness adds.
A grid of 100 firms. Each period, a random fraction $(1-\theta)$ gets to reset their price (green). The rest are stuck with their old price (red). Adjust $\theta$ and step through periods to see how price stickiness works.
Figure 15.1. Calvo pricing visualized. Green cells = firms that reset their price this period. Red cells = firms stuck with an old price. With $\theta = 0.75$, only 25% of firms adjust each quarter, so aggregate prices are sluggish. This is the micro-mechanism behind the NKPC. Click "Step Forward" or "Auto-Play" to advance.
Set $\phi_\pi = 0.8 < 1$. Show that sunspot equilibria are possible.
Step 1: Suppose agents suddenly believe inflation will be 2% next period (a sunspot). From the IS curve: $x = E_tx_{t+1} - (1/\sigma)(i - E_t\pi_{t+1} - r^n)$.
Step 2: Taylor rule: $i = r^* + 0.8\pi + 0.5x$. With $\phi_\pi = 0.8$, a 1% rise in inflation raises $i$ by only 0.8%. The real rate $r = i - E\pi$ falls by 0.2%.
Step 3: Lower real rate stimulates demand: $x$ rises. Higher output gap raises inflation via NKPC: $\pi = \kappa x > 0$. This validates the original belief.
Step 4: The sunspot is self-fulfilling: belief in higher inflation causes lower real rates, higher demand, and higher actual inflation. With $\phi_\pi > 1$, this loop is broken: the real rate rises with inflation, choking off demand.
A severe recession drives the natural rate to $r^n = -3\%$. Parameters: $\phi_\pi = 1.5$, $\phi_x = 0.5$, $\sigma = 1$, $\kappa = 0.3$.
Step 1: Without ZLB, Taylor rule: $i = 2 + 1.5(0) + 0.5(0) - 3 = -1\%$ (assuming $r^n$ enters). Negative rate is infeasible.
Step 2: ZLB binds: $i = 0$. Real rate: $r = 0 - E\pi \approx 0\%$ (if inflation near zero). But natural rate is $-3\%$. Monetary policy gap: $r - r^n = 0 - (-3) = 3\%$ too tight.
Step 3: From the IS curve: $x \approx -(1/\sigma)(r - r^n) = -3\%$. The output gap is severely negative.
Step 4: From NKPC: $\pi = \kappa x = 0.3(-3) = -0.9\%$. Deflation sets in, raising the real rate further and deepening the recession: the deflationary spiral.
Policy options: Forward guidance (promise low rates after recovery), fiscal stimulus (government spending has multiplier $> 1$ at ZLB), or unconventional monetary policy (QE).
Compare responses to a surprise 1% interest rate cut.
RBC model: Money is neutral. The nominal rate drop has no effect on any real variable. Output, consumption, investment, and hours are all unchanged. $\Delta y = \Delta c = \Delta i = \Delta h = 0$.
NK model: With $\theta = 0.75$ (prices reset once per year on average):
Step 1: The real rate falls by approximately 1% (prices are sticky, so lower $i$ passes through to lower $r$).
Step 2: From the IS curve, the output gap rises: $\Delta x \approx (1/\sigma)\Delta r = 1\%$.
Step 3: From the NKPC, inflation rises: $\Delta\pi = \kappa\Delta x = 0.3\%$.
Step 4: Over time, prices adjust. As more firms reset at higher prices, the price level catches up, the real rate returns to normal, and the output effect dissipates. Half-life: roughly $1/(1-\theta) = 4$ quarters.
Key insight: Nominal rigidities convert a nominal shock into a real one. As $\theta \to 0$, the NK response converges to the RBC response (no real effects).
The Volcker disinflation (1979–82): Raising rates to 20% to break inflation.
When Paul Volcker became Fed Chair in August 1979, U.S. inflation was running at 13% and accelerating. Inflation expectations had become unanchored: workers demanded higher wages, firms raised prices, and the Phillips curve had shifted up repeatedly. The pre-Volcker Fed under Arthur Burns had responded to inflation with modest rate increases ($\phi_\pi \approx 0.83 < 1$), violating the Taylor principle and allowing inflation to become self-fulfilling.
Volcker's strategy was radical: he raised the federal funds rate to a peak of 20% in June 1981. The real interest rate exceeded 8%, the most restrictive monetary policy in modern U.S. history. The economy plunged into recession: unemployment peaked at 10.8% in November 1982, and GDP fell by 2.7%.
The result: Inflation fell from 13% to 3% by 1983. More importantly, inflation expectations were broken. The sacrifice ratio — the cumulative output loss per percentage point of disinflation — was approximately 2.3, within the range predicted by NK models with moderate price stickiness ($\theta \approx 0.75$).
NK interpretation: Volcker's policy implemented the Taylor principle with a vengeance ($\phi_\pi \gg 1$). By demonstrating that the Fed would tolerate severe recession to reduce inflation, he shifted from an indeterminate regime to a determinate one. Post-Volcker, the Fed maintained $\phi_\pi > 1$, producing the Great Moderation (1984–2007), the longest period of macroeconomic stability in U.S. history.
Kaelani's central bank adopts an inflation-targeting regime with target $\pi^* = 3\%$ and Taylor rule: $i_t = 0.04 + 1.5(\pi_t - 0.03) + 0.5x_t$.
Scenario 1 (demand shock): Commodity price boom raises inflation to 5%. Taylor rule: $i = 0.04 + 1.5(0.02) + 0.5(0.02) = 8\%$. The real rate rises, cooling demand.
Scenario 2 (ZLB): Global recession drives $r^n = -2\%$. Taylor rule calls for $i = -1\%$, but the ZLB binds at 0%. The economy remains in recession. Options: fiscal stimulus, forward guidance, or unconventional monetary policy.
| Label | Equation | Description |
|---|---|---|
| Eq. 15.1–15.2 | Dixit-Stiglitz aggregation | Monopolistic competition |
| Eq. 15.4 | $\pi_t = \beta E_t\pi_{t+1} + \kappa x_t$ | New Keynesian Phillips Curve |
| Eq. 15.5 | $x_t = E_tx_{t+1} - \frac{1}{\sigma}(i_t - E_t\pi_{t+1} - r_t^n)$ | Dynamic IS curve |
| Eq. 15.6 | $i_t = r^* + \phi_\pi\pi_t + \phi_x x_t$ | Taylor rule |
| Eq. 15.7 | $\phi_\pi > 1$ | Taylor principle |
| Eq. 15.8 | NKPC with cost-push shock $u_t$ | Breaks divine coincidence |
| Eq. 15.9 | $\mathcal{L} = E_0 \sum \beta^t [x_t^2 + \alpha_\pi \pi_t^2]$ | Central bank loss function |
| Eq. 15.10 | $i_t \geq 0$ | Zero lower bound |